Semantics & Grammar

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We pay attention to the meaning of the words, and to the grammar.

I. GRAMMAR:

Hebrews 10:14 — Notice the verbs / the verb tenses, in this verse:

“For by one sacrifice, He has made perfect forever… …those who are being made holy.”

Romans 5:1-11 — Again, notice the tenses of the verbs, esp. in vv. 1, 2, 9, & 11

In this handout, we will spend most of our time on Semantics.

II. SEMANTICS: (= the meanings of the words)

The term “semantics” refers to the meanings of the words being used.

Most of the words in the Bible are used in a way that is clear and straight-forward. But this is not always the case.

For example, many words can be used both literally and figuratively.

For a specific example, consider the term "fox" in `Luke 13:32`.

Also, words often have a range of meaning, and can be used in more one way.

Please Note:

The entire range of meaning does not (!) show up each & every time the word is used.

We will see this below, when we compare Romans 3:28 to James 2:24.

So sometimes it is necessary to ask: How is this word being used?

We see that the meaning of a word in a particular verse is determined by these two factors:

Semantic Range

• Potential meaning of a particular word
• How is it being used here?

We tend to pay close attention to the meanings of the words either when the meaning is simply not clear to us (such as: is it being used literally or figuratively?), or, when one verse seems to disagree with another verse.

When we are paying close attention to the meanings of the words, we are usually trying to determine one of two things:

• A. We are trying to determine… Exactly what word is being used?
• B. We are trying to determine… How a word being used?

We will look at a few examples of each.

A. Determine Exactly What Word(s) are Being Used, and perhaps: What is the Focus of that Word Compared to Similar Words.

We will look at one example from the Old Testament, and one from the New Testament

1. An Example from the Old Testament: Amos 9:4-5 → Does God do ‘evil’?

   The apparent problem with this verse:

   The solution / the explanation → is to understand two things very carefully:

   1. What is the “semantic range” of this word? = What are the ways this word can be used?

   2. How does this word differ from other similar words in the Old Testament for “sin,” iniquity, “transgression,” etc.?

      For example, the terms usually translated "sin / iniquity / transgression" are all used in Ps 51:1-3.
      

   The specific word used in Amos 9:4 occurs = 350x in the OT.

   For those who can read English, you can look it up in Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible online; it is word #7451.
   

   Here are some of the many passages that use this specific word; they are grouped below into two sets:

Set #1: Moral Evil

Set #2: Destruction

• What do you notice about the difference between the examples in the first set, and the examples in the second set?

  A Basic Question: Does God reserve to himself the right to actually punish sin?

  Conclusion about the meaning of the word ‘evil’ in Amos 9:4

1. An Example from the New Testament: 1 John 3:7-10 → Do Christians still sin, or not?

   This is the apparent problem with these verses.

   The solution / the explanation, has two parts:

   1. Look closely at the specific words being used.
      • 1 John 3:8 “The one who practices sin is of the Devil…”
      • 1 John 3:9 “No one who is born of God sins (??) ↔ practices sin.”
   2. Also, bear in mind what was said earlier in 1 John 1:8-10.

   So → How do we understand what John is saying in 1 John 3:7-10?

   • John is not saying…
   • But John is saying…

B. Determine How a Word is Being Used in a Verse

An Example from the New Testament: Rom 3:28 & Gal 2:16 ↔ James 2:20-24. Read each of these verses, and in particular, consider the use of the verb ‘to justify’.

What seems to be the problem?

• Q: How are we to understand this / to resolve the seeming disagreement?
• A: There are two key insights.

1. Paul and James are asking related but different questions.
   • Paul is asking:

   • And what is Paul’s answer?

   • James is asking:
   • And what is James’ answer?

   Don’t miss this: James is making an important point. (See for example Acts 10:34-35).

2. Paul and James are using the same verb, to justify (it is the same verb in Greek). But that verb has a range of meaning (its “semantic range”), and can be used in more than one specific way.

   Consider how that verb is used in Luke 7:35 (and also in Rom 3:4 and 1 Tim 3:16).

   We see that there are two main uses of the verb to justify in the NT:

   1. Change our position (Paul)

   2. Show / vindicated (James)

   Therefore, Paul and James are using the same word, the same verb. However, Paul is using it in the first sense listed above, and James is using it in the second sense.

Conclusions Concerning James 2:24, and the verb to justify:

Our justification toward God, the act by which we are declared righteous in God’s sight, and are moved from death to life, is based on genuine faith, apart from works which we might have done. This what Paul emphasizes.

Nonetheless, true faith will(!) produce some kind of evidence, some kind of ‘works’; James is right.

The Reformers put it this way:

We conclude that we are saved by faith, apart from works—but not by a faith which is apart from works.

A simple way to put is as follows:

In Summary: It is very important to understand the meanings of the words in the Bible correctly, and also to pay attention to how they are being used in a specific passage.